How would Nostradamus have known, that what he wrote down, were really predictions of future events?
Nostradamus, Predictions and Occult art.
We have to take into account that he had less actual knowledge about possible future events than we have now. At least, we have the possibility to compare his quatrains with actual events.
Nostradamus had no way to crosscheck the validity of what he wrote with information from other sources. If we can accept that he himself was sincerely convinced that he actually wrote true predictions, then it seems that he must have had blind confidence in his source.
It has generally been taken for granted that Nostradamus did the concealing of the predictions in quatrains himself and that the inquisition was the main reason for doing this.
Since he must have been completely dependent on one source only, it could equally well be that the codification was already part of the visions. In that case Nostradamus might have written down quite literally whatever the source dictated and he might even not have understood what he wrote. However it might be, the resulting oeuvre is extremely difficult to understand and to interpret.
If Nostradamus really predicted the future and he is not a charlatan or a cheat then it must be true that he really received these predictions from an occult source as he always claimed.
Would that not be truly amazing? But what does it mean? Does it mean that we are not alone? We might be able to analyze a person based on his biography but what could we possibly know about an occult source. The fact is that we do not know anything about the existence of such a source (even after all these centuries). Even if we would believe and accept the possibility of something beyond our current knowledge we would not be able to comment on its motivation, capabilities, where it comes from, how it communicates etc.
Looking at the complexity of the book it is possible that it has an entire different purpose than just giving predictions.
If there was an occult source, it could have used Nostradamus for its own purposes, including getting a printed copy of the communication. The only party that can really explain the purpose of the document written by the prophet has to be this source. This leads to more questions: what could have been the motivation (benefit) for such a source to release prophetic knowledge?
We cannot explain true prophecy. It should not exist. Nothing that we know of in our universe could explain the existence of true prophecy. If true prophecy really does exist, it must relate to something we still dont know about. It could mean that there are unknown forces or entities that have communicated with us using techniques we do not understand.
There is no theory about true prophecy that would fit in our current scientific knowledge.
If however true prophecy does exist and there is an explanation then Such a theory would be likely so complex that any entity that can actively do something with it must be very advanced. This includes having knowledge about our future, our future technology and the capability to communicate trough time, really remarkable feats.
I think we are getting closer in formulating a concept of what might have happened. For starters the role of Nostradamus seems to be limited to that of interpreter. If we still believe that he received real prophecies than the credits should go entirely to the occult source. The consequences are that such a source knows our future and with that it will have knowledge about our future technology, which is likely to be of very high level.
Could it be possible that it is technology that makes predictions possible?
Lets make a hypothesis, and analyze the subject from there on. Hypothesis creates questions. Questions can be answered and create new questions. Answers could shed some light on the physics of what might have happened.
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